the_dunk_tank

The first mass privatization of state property occurred in Nazi Germany between 1933 and 1937: "It is a fact that the government of the National Socialist Party sold off public ownership in several state-owned firms in the middle of the 1930s. The firms belonged to a wide range of sectors: steel, mining, banking, local public utilities, shipyard, ship-lines, railways, etc. In addition to this, delivery of some public services produced by public administrations prior to the 1930s, especially social services and services related to work, was transferred to the private sector, mainly to several organizations within the Nazi Party."

Who are you going to believe, the Nazi Party or your own lying eyes?

Ah ha, I have done a clever. See, nazis say thing and communists did thing. That means they are the exact same. Please ignore all differences, or that the nazis lied through their teeth constantly.

Lol, if you check the etymology of privatization on Wikipedia

The term reprivatization, again translated directly from German (Reprivatisierung), was used frequently in the mid-1930s as The Economist reported on Nazi Germany's sale of nationalized banks back to public shareholders following the 1931 economic crisis.[8]

Why would you believe nazis about what they say about themselves?

I'm not a Nazi, but I know all of the details of their policies.

I mean, I heard about Nazis, and while I don't agree with the ethnic cleansing, I just had to know what their tax policies looked like.

Weren’t skme of Hitler’s top brass afraid of being seen as woke communists because of all the appropriated language, and Hitler got irritated because they weren’t able to see that it was the entire point?