this post was submitted on 17 Jul 2024
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[–] driving_crooner@lemmy.eco.br 33 points 4 months ago (2 children)

Doesn't, the binary pattern 10101010 dosen't exists on that number, for example.

[–] leverage@lemdro.id 7 points 4 months ago (1 children)

You can encode base 2 as base 10, I don't think anyone is saying it exists in binary form.

[–] twei@discuss.tchncs.de 2 points 4 months ago

Well it's infinite so it has to I guess

[–] TdotMatrix@lemmy.ml 5 points 4 months ago (1 children)
[–] Turun@feddit.de 14 points 4 months ago

No, because you can't mathematically guarantee that pi contains long strings of predetermined patterns.

The 1.101001000100001... example by the other user was just that - an example. Their number is infinite, but never contains a 2. Pi is also infinite, but does it contain the number e to 100 digits of precision? Maybe. Maybe not. The point is, we don't know and we can't prove it either way (except finding it by accident).