this post was submitted on 01 May 2024
114 points (96.7% liked)
Asklemmy
43885 readers
801 users here now
A loosely moderated place to ask open-ended questions
Search asklemmy ๐
If your post meets the following criteria, it's welcome here!
- Open-ended question
- Not offensive: at this point, we do not have the bandwidth to moderate overtly political discussions. Assume best intent and be excellent to each other.
- Not regarding using or support for Lemmy: context, see the list of support communities and tools for finding communities below
- Not ad nauseam inducing: please make sure it is a question that would be new to most members
- An actual topic of discussion
Looking for support?
Looking for a community?
- Lemmyverse: community search
- sub.rehab: maps old subreddits to fediverse options, marks official as such
- !lemmy411@lemmy.ca: a community for finding communities
~Icon~ ~by~ ~@Double_A@discuss.tchncs.de~
founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
view the rest of the comments
Apparently not, or those would've become the universal.
History is what caused it. Though it's pretty fascinating that in Shakespeare's time, English (in England) was considered the commoner's tongue, while the upper classes spoke French.
This is part of Shakespeare's legacy (he wrote and performed in English) , and also shows why the early documents in America are worded the way they are. No American says "four score and 20 years", that's from French.
My whole life has been a lie.