this post was submitted on 17 Feb 2024
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That's not quite correct. If we look at 1 Corinthians 6:9 (not nice) and the commentaries around the words to explain it, we can find things like the below. Summary: not just being gay but even being effeminate. Additionally, I've never heard a single sermon where they were saying the Greek doesn't actually mean that. They all very much meant it.
Reading exercise if anyone likes walls of text.
English amplified:
Here's one commentary: https://gospelreformation.net/pauls-understanding-of-sexuality/
I think we get the point though. There's more.
Those are all really interesting theories, but the simple matter is that if it was referencing homosexuality, there were plenty of appropriate words Paul could have used.
Specifically, erastes and eromenos.
The words Paul used certainly have sexual connotations, but if he meant gay sex, plenty of words already existed for it.
There's a ton of theories, but no one "knows" exactly what Paul means here. It's a strange word with almost no parallels anywhere else in history.