So we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10 because base 60 was too useful? How does that make any sense? The question wasn't why we use base 100 instead of base 60.

[–] Sagifurius@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Not really knowledgeable bout history either, are you?

[–] FooBarrington@lemmy.world 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Not really able to lead a conversation without non-sequiturs, are you?

[–] Sagifurius@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

It's not a non sequitur. You'd know that if you ever read a book.

[–] FooBarrington@lemmy.world 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

No, it's a full-on non-sequitur. As I said, the question wasn't why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 60, but why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10. What you're saying doesn't relate at all to my question.

But I'm done here, you're either arguing in incredibly bad faith, or you're not capable of understanding my questions. Either isn't something I'll spend more time on.

[–] Sagifurius@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago

Just cause you don't understand doesn't make it a non-sequitur