this post was submitted on 15 Nov 2023
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[–] Appoxo@lemmy.dbzer0.com 7 points 1 year ago (1 children)

But how are those percentages distributed globally? If the 32% mostly resides within middle/west europe and american continents with a minority in Asia it totally makes sense why we have that understanding in the west.

[–] TrickDacy@lemmy.world 3 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Not everyone in the West is fully European, but even if they were, a significant portion of even those people are lactose intolerant. I mentioned the global stat 1) because it was available 2) to illustrate the point that just because we evolved something recently doesn't make it the standard way for a person to be.

[–] Appoxo@lemmy.dbzer0.com 2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

I understood that.
But if you have the majority of the minority in one place the perspective is skewed towards thinking the minority is actually in the majority even if it isnt.

[–] TrickDacy@lemmy.world -2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

The vast majority of humans are lactose intolerant. I sort of get your point but mine still stands. Especially considering in America the percentage is 36% even though we are by majority white still

https://worldpopulationreview.com/country-rankings/lactose-intolerance-by-country

Sort that data and you'll see a lot of countries even higher.

I think the real reason this issue is not known about is because it involves poop and that's a taboo topic that embarrasses people.

Growing up, and still today, if I just went by popular discourse, it would seem to be less than 10%