this post was submitted on 09 Jan 2025
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Latin
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how did the I becone the Z and the Z became the I? why are half the letters mirrored frim archaic latin to roman?
i wasn't an i. It was a different sound represented by a sign that resembled i.
For the I to Z, I'm not entirely sure, but it doesn't seem too ridiculous.
As for why it was flipped, it's because Phoenician was right to left, and Greek/latin are descended from it, but they are left to right instead. I guess the ancient Greeks/Latin tribes didn't bother just fixing the letters. They eventually catched up and flipped it later on, though.
Language evolution is wacky, but beautiful :)