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Since Pi is infinite and non-repeating, would that mean any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers should appear somewhere in Pi? (lemmy.dbzer0.com)

submitted 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) by Melatonin@lemmy.dbzer0.com to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

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[–] Umbrias@beehaw.org 2 points 1 day ago (1 children)

"please consider a number that isnt pi" so not relevant, gotcha. it does not answer the original question, this new number is not normal, sure, but that has no bearing on if pi is normal.

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 2 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

OK, fine. Imagine that in pi after the quadrillionth digit, all 1s are replaced with 9. It still holds

[–] Umbrias@beehaw.org 1 points 1 day ago (1 children)

"ok fine consider a number that still isn't pi, it still holds." ??

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 1 points 16 hours ago

Prove that said number isn't pi.