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If we are forced to patronize a bank, does that violate Art.20 of the UDHR?
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scaled
Yes, for cases like you are illustrating here, seems to me that is forcing some association as you argue. Then again, it doesn't force a /specific/ association, as long as there is a free marketplace for banking with real options. However, even then it does still make a compulsory partition in that way.
Hmm, now that I think of it, in USA the supply of cash flows from banks and thus supply of cash, whether directly or indirectly, requires some association with them too... the alternatives seem to be barter, scrip, etc. But if it's illegal to freely trade directly between suppliers and the needful for basic necessities, that does at least seem objectionable.
I'm also thinking about "banking hours"/bank requirements constraining the ability of even bank account holders to garner those necessities freely.