this post was submitted on 24 May 2024
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[–] boonhet@lemm.ee 31 points 5 months ago (2 children)

Isn't "I" also a pronoun? Making this sentence 2/3 pronouns.

At least that's how it works in my native tongue.

[–] dQw4w9WgXcQ@lemm.ee 16 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) (1 children)

Dang, the pronoun discussion has lead me to forget that pronouns include I, we and they. I'll make use of this.

"What are your pronouns?"

"I / me"

[–] WholeEnchilada@lemmy.today 1 points 5 months ago

"They" is preferred for people unsure which or none. I think if you tell them you're hung and have the right the jeans, it's all good.

[–] lauha@lemmy.one 7 points 5 months ago (2 children)

Pretty sure Jesus didn't speak english though. Some people in bible belt might disagree.

[–] boonhet@lemm.ee 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)

I of course don't speak ancient languages, but I believe pronouns existed 2000 years ago too.

[–] lauha@lemmy.one 1 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Yes, but some languages can drop the pronoun in favor of some other linguistic construct. For example in finnish 'I am driving" can be said "minä ajan" but "minä"(I) can be dropped completely to just "ajan" because base word for driving is "ajaa" and when I am doing it, it is inflected to "ajan"

[–] boonhet@lemm.ee 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)

That's also true of Estonian and Spanish, but in the case of "I am he", you'd shorten away the actor, but not the target of the action, so you'd keep one pronoun still at least.

[–] lauha@lemmy.one 1 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Also the whole theoretical discussion is pointless because we probably have a guess of jesus' native language and knowledge of pronoun system in it

[–] BluesF@lemmy.world 1 points 5 months ago

Aramaic, maybe also Hebrew. Both have pronouns.

[–] WholeEnchilada@lemmy.today 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)

He spoke all the languages! Amen. Praise the lawdy lawdy. Lmao

[–] RizzRustbolt@lemmy.world 2 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) (1 children)

No. He spoke American.

Specifically, Southern Baptist American.

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[–] tsonfeir@lemmy.world 25 points 5 months ago

That’s John assuming Jesus’s pronouns.

[–] thefartographer@lemm.ee 18 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) (2 children)

John Jesus Jingleheimer Schmidt

[–] OlinOfTheHillPeople@lemmy.world 6 points 5 months ago

Joey Jo-jo Jesus Shabadoo

[–] Phegan@lemmy.world 4 points 5 months ago (1 children)
[–] Thassodar@lemm.ee 3 points 5 months ago

Whenever we go out...

[–] Flax_vert@feddit.uk 13 points 5 months ago

Forgot the next bit!

‭John 18:6 ESV‬

When Jesus said to them, “I am he,” they drew back and fell to the ground.

[–] roguetrick@lemmy.world 9 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) (3 children)

I usually think grammatical gender is pretty useless in Indo European languages, with most of them having to gender a washing machine, but afro Asiatic ones have a fun additional quirk: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polarity_of_gender

Essentially the numbers have to be the opposite gender of whatever it's married to.

[–] Flax_vert@feddit.uk 5 points 5 months ago (2 children)

Some languages just don't have any genders which is better

[–] roguetrick@lemmy.world 3 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

Armenian and Persian are the main Indo European languages that don't have even gendered pronouns. English got halfway there by dropping gendered nouns. The original Indo European language gender was based on if something had a spirit or not, not male or female. It changed into that binary selection early enough that even Sanskrit is gendered with male/female nouns

[–] pikmeir@lemmy.world 1 points 5 months ago

Korean is one such language.

[–] lugal@lemmy.world 2 points 5 months ago

This is wild! I have heard many crazy shit but this is new to me

[–] Wizard_Pope@lemmy.world 2 points 5 months ago

You're just jealous because english does not have grammatical gender.

[–] Choosenewagain@lemmy.world 8 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Isn't the capital H in He referring to God? Ie: "I am God". Making it a noun (person, place or thing) rather than a pronoun in this instance?

[–] asqapro@reddthat.com 18 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) (1 children)

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reverential_capitalization

Edited to add: “He” is still a pronoun, regardless of capitalization.

[–] Choosenewagain@lemmy.world 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)
[–] Magrath@lemmy.ca 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Looking this passage up the "he" is not capitalized in the several I checked.

[–] Flax_vert@feddit.uk 3 points 5 months ago

Depends on the translation, obviously since the greek doesn't have capital letters.

Textus Receptus:

απεκριθησαν αυτω ιησουν τον ναζωραιον λεγει αυτοις ο ιησους εγω ειμι ειστηκει δε και ιουδας ο παραδιδους αυτον μετ αυτων

KJV italicises it

‭John 18:5 KJV‬

They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am he. And Judas also, which betrayed him, stood with them.

NASB capitalises it

They answered Him, “Jesus the Nazarene.” He *said to them, “I am He.” And Judas also, who was betraying Him, was standing with them.

NIV, ESV and USNT don't

“Jesus of Nazareth,” they replied. “I am he,” Jesus said. (And Judas the traitor was standing there with them.)

They answered him, “Jesus of Nazareth.” Jesus said to them, “I am he.” Judas, who betrayed him, was standing with them.

‭“Jesus o Nazareth,” the' reponed. “A be hïm,” qo he. (An Judas tha bethrayer wus stud thonner alang wi thaim.)

[–] lugal@lemmy.world 3 points 5 months ago

Only demons use pronouns:

My name is legion and my pronouns are they/them

[–] Shardikprime@lemmy.world 3 points 5 months ago

Good guy Jesus paid his taxes concisely

[–] MonkderDritte@feddit.de 1 points 5 months ago

Jesus, no he wasn't.

[–] Phegan@lemmy.world 1 points 5 months ago

Jesus be like

I am him.

[–] WholeEnchilada@lemmy.today 1 points 5 months ago

This cute boy served me a beer today at the bar. He liked me and told me was FTM. I came in my pants for Jesus.

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