This is pseudo-science. Judaism is a religion, not a gene. And to the extent that ancestry can be inferred from genetics, around 20% of the iberian population has iberian jews as ancestors. So is spain considered 20% jewish? Of course not, because ancestry is an ancient mixed bag and judaism is a religion. Is there any evidence that Columbus practiced judaism? I haven't heard any.
The headline is total clickbait compared to the more accurate description in the article:
And both in the Y chromosome (male) and in the mitochondrial DNA (transmitted by the mother) of Hernando there are traits compatible with Jewish origin.