this post was submitted on 08 Oct 2023
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Seems like it should and the result should be one. Does mathematics agree with me on that?

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[–] RedwoodAnarchy@lemm.ee 11 points 1 year ago (3 children)

0/0 is an indeterminate form and could equal anything depending on the specific zeros Involved.

[–] idiomaddict@feddit.de 8 points 1 year ago (2 children)

I need you to explain that one. Specific zeros? Aren’t they all just equal to zero?

[–] RedwoodAnarchy@lemm.ee 5 points 1 year ago

It's a calculus thing. We can only give the expression a value if we know the functions giving us a zero value that are being devided. For example if we were dividing the function (X) by the function (X^2) at zero our we would get infinity (Wikipedia has a pretty good page on indeterminate forms).

You could also think of it like multiplying both the numerator and denominator of a fraction by 0. This should preserve the fractions value, but multiplying by 0 essentially erases both values so we can no longer know what the fraction equals unless we know how both values came to be 0.

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